THE LIVING WORLD BEST MCQ NEET

 

 

(100)NEET MCQS ON THE LIVING WORLD CHAPTER FOR PRACTICE

 

 

 

Which of the following is not a characteristic of living organisms?
A) Reproduction
B) Growth and development
C) Response to stimuli
D) Inorganic composition
Answer: D) Inorganic composition
Explanation: Living organisms are composed of organic molecules, while inorganic substances do not possess the characteristics of life.

The branch of biology that deals with the classification of organisms is called:
A) Genetics
B) Ecology
C) Taxonomy
D) Physiology
Answer: C) Taxonomy
Explanation: Taxonomy is the science of classification of organisms based on their characteristics.

Who is considered the father of taxonomy?
A) Charles Darwin
B) Carolus Linnaeus
C) Gregor Mendel
D) Louis Pasteur
Answer: B) Carolus Linnaeus
Explanation: Linnaeus is known as the father of taxonomy for his contributions to the classification system.

Which of the following is not a taxonomic rank?
A) Kingdom
B) Family
C) Class
D) Order
Answer: E) Division
Explanation: Division is a taxonomic rank used in the classification of plants, not in the general classification system.

The correct hierarchy of taxonomic categories from broadest to most specific is:
A) Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
B) Kingdom, Domain, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
C) Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Order, Family, Genus, Species
D) Domain, Kingdom, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
Answer: C) Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
Explanation: This sequence represents the hierarchical classification system from the broadest category to the most specific.

Which domain includes organisms with prokaryotic cells?
A) Archaea
B) Eukarya
C) Bacteria
D) Protista
Answer: A) Archaea
Explanation: Archaea are unicellular organisms with prokaryotic cells.

The scientific name of an organism consists of:
A) Genus only
B) Species only
C) Genus and species
D) Kingdom and species
Answer: C) Genus and species
Explanation: The scientific name, or binomial nomenclature, consists of the genus name followed by the species name.

What is the correct scientific name for humans?
A) Homo sapiens
B) Homo erectus
C) Homo habilis
D) Homo neanderthalensis
Answer: A) Homo sapiens
Explanation: “Homo sapiens” is the species name for modern humans.

Which of the following is an example of a vertebrate?
A) Earthworm
B) Starfish
C) Octopus
D) Frog
Answer: D) Frog
Explanation: Frogs belong to the vertebrate group because they possess a backbone.

The study of fossils is known as:
A) Paleontology
B) Archaeology
C) Geology
D) Anthropology
Answer: A) Paleontology
Explanation: Paleontology is the scientific study of fossils to understand the history of life on Earth.

Who proposed the theory of evolution by natural selection?
A) Charles Darwin
B) Gregor Mendel
C) Alfred Wallace
D) Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
Answer: A) Charles Darwin
Explanation: Charles Darwin is known for proposing the theory of evolution by natural selection in his book “On the Origin of Species.”

Which of the following is not a mechanism of evolution?
A) Natural selection
B) Genetic drift
C) Mutation
D) Adaptation
Answer: D) Adaptation
Explanation: Adaptation is a result of evolution through mechanisms like natural selection and genetic drift.

Which of the following is a vestigial structure in humans?
A) Appendix
B) Heart
C) Brain
D) Lungs
Answer: A) Appendix
Explanation: The human appendix is considered vestigial as its function in digestion is minimal.

What term describes the process of two species evolving in response to each other?
A) Symbiosis
B) Coevolution
C) Convergent evolution
D) Divergent evolution
Answer: B) Coevolution
Explanation: Coevolution refers to the reciprocal evolutionary influence between two interacting species.

Which of the following is an example of mutualism?
A) Lion hunting a zebra
B) Bee collecting nectar from a flower
C) Parasite infecting a host organism
D) Hawk preying on a mouse
Answer: B) Bee collecting nectar from a flower
Explanation: Mutualism is a type of symbiotic relationship where both species benefit, as in the case of bees and flowers.

What is the primary source of energy for most ecosystems?
A) Sunlight
B) Geothermal energy
C) Wind
D) Fossil fuels
Answer: A) Sunlight
Explanation: Sunlight is converted into chemical energy through photosynthesis and is the basis of most ecosystems.

Which of the following is not a primary producer?
A) Grass
B) Algae
C) Cow
D) Trees
Answer: C) Cow
Explanation: Primary producers, or autotrophs, are organisms that produce their own food through photosynthesis or chemosynthesis.

Which of the following is an example of a decomposer?
A) Rabbit
B) Earthworm
C) Fungi
D) Grasshopper
Answer: C) Fungi
Explanation: Decomposers break down dead organic matter and recycle nutrients back into the ecosystem, fungi being one example.

The trophic level that represents organisms that feed on primary producers is called:
A) Primary consumers
B) Secondary consumers
C) Tertiary consumers
D) Quaternary consumers
Answer: A) Primary consumers
Explanation: Primary consumers feed directly on primary producers, representing the second trophic level.

The transfer of energy between trophic levels in an ecosystem is typically:
A) 100%
B) 75%
C) 50%
D) 10%
Answer: D) 10%
Explanation: Only about 10% of energy is transferred between trophic levels, with the rest being lost as heat or used for metabolic processes.

Which biome is characterized by cold temperatures, permafrost, and low-growing vegetation?
A) Desert
B) Tundra
C) Tropical rainforest
D) Grassland
Answer: B) Tundra
Explanation: The tundra biome is found in cold regions with permanently frozen subsoil and low vegetation.

Which of the following is not a freshwater biome?
A) Lake
B) Pond
C) River
D) Coral reef
Answer: D) Coral reef
Explanation: Coral reefs are marine ecosystems found in warm, shallow waters.

Which of the following is an abiotic factor?
A) Soil
B) Plants
C) Temperature
D) Decomposers
Answer: C) Temperature
Explanation: Abiotic factors are non-living components of an ecosystem, such as temperature, soil, water, etc.

Which of the following is a density-independent factor that influences population size?
A) Predation
B) Disease
C) Competition
D) Natural disasters
Answer: D) Natural disasters
Explanation: Density-independent factors affect population size regardless of the population’s density, such as natural disasters or climate events.

Which of the following is an example of intraspecific competition?
A) Lion hunting a zebra
B) Plants competing for sunlight
C) Two lions fighting over territory
D) Rabbit feeding on grass
Answer: C) Two lions fighting over territory
Explanation: Intraspecific competition occurs between individuals of the same species, such as competition for resources or territory.

The maximum population size that a particular environment can support indefinitely is called:
A) Carrying capacity
B) Growth rate
C) Reproductive potential
D) Limiting factor
Answer: A) Carrying capacity
Explanation: Carrying capacity is the maximum number of individuals of a species that an environment can support without degradation.

The process by which new species arise is called:
A) Evolution
B) Extinction
C) Speciation
D) Migration
Answer: C) Speciation
Explanation: Speciation is the formation of new and distinct species in the course of evolution.

Which of the following is a prezygotic barrier to reproduction?
A) Hybrid sterility
B) Habitat isolation
C) Reduced hybrid viability
D) Hybrid breakdown
Answer: B) Habitat isolation
Explanation: Prezygotic barriers prevent mating or fertilization between different species, such as habitat isolation where species occupy different habitats.

Which of the following is a postzygotic barrier to reproduction?
A) Temporal isolation
B) Mechanical isolation
C) Reduced hybrid fertility
D) Behavioral isolation
Answer: C) Reduced hybrid fertility
Explanation: Postzygotic barriers occur after mating has taken place, such as reduced hybrid fertility where hybrids are sterile or have reduced fertility.

Which type of reproductive isolation occurs when species breed at different times of the year?
A) Mechanical isolation
B) Temporal isolation
C) Gametic isolation
D) Behavioral isolation
Answer: B) Temporal isolation
Explanation: Temporal isolation prevents mating between species due to differences in breeding times.

Which of the following is an example of convergent evolution?
A) Wings of bats and wings of birds
B) Forelimbs of cats and forelimbs of humans
C) Fins of whales and fins of fish
D) Beak shapes of different bird species
Answer: A) Wings of bats and wings of birds
Explanation: Convergent evolution occurs when different species evolve similar traits or characteristics independently in response to similar environmental pressures.

Which of the following is an example of divergent evolution?
A) Wings of bats and wings of birds
B) Forelimbs of cats and forelimbs of humans
C) Fins of whales and fins of fish
D) Beak shapes of different bird species
Answer: B) Forelimbs of cats and forelimbs of humans
Explanation: Divergent evolution occurs when two or more related species become more dissimilar over time.

The process of DNA replication occurs during which phase of the cell cycle?
A) G1 phase
B) S phase
C) G2 phase
D) M phase
Answer: B) S phase
Explanation: DNA replication occurs during the synthesis (S) phase of the cell cycle.

Which of the following is not a stage of mitosis?
A) Prophase
B) Anaphase
C) Interphase
D) Telophase
Answer: C) Interphase
Explanation: Interphase is not a stage of mitosis but rather the phase between cell divisions where the cell grows and prepares for division.

During which stage of mitosis do sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell?
A) Prophase
B) Metaphase
C) Anaphase
D) Telophase
Answer: C) Anaphase
Explanation: Anaphase is the stage of mitosis where sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles of the cell.

Which of the following is a product of meiosis?
A) Somatic cells
B) Gametes
C) Zygotes
D) Spores
Answer: B) Gametes
Explanation: Meiosis is the process of cell division that produces gametes, such as sperm and egg cells.

What is the correct sequence of stages in meiosis?
A) Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I, Telophase I, Prophase II, Metaphase II, Anaphase II, Telophase II
B) Prophase I, Metaphase II, Anaphase I, Telophase II, Prophase II, Metaphase I, Anaphase II, Telophase I
C) Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I, Telophase I, Prophase II, Metaphase II, Anaphase II, Telophase II
D) Prophase II, Metaphase II, Anaphase II, Telophase II, Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I, Telophase I
Answer: C) Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I, Telophase I, Prophase II, Metaphase II, Anaphase II, Telophase II
Explanation: Meiosis involves two rounds of cell division, resulting in four daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

The sex chromosomes of a human male are:
A) XX
B) XY
C) YY
D) XO
Answer: B) XY
Explanation: Human males typically have one X and one Y chromosome in their genome.

Which of the following genetic disorders is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21?
A) Down syndrome
B) Turner syndrome
C) Klinefelter syndrome
D) Cri du chat syndrome
Answer: A) Down syndrome
Explanation: Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21.

The genetic disorder characterized by the absence of one X chromosome in females is called:
A) Down syndrome
B) Turner syndrome
C) Klinefelter syndrome
D) Cri du chat syndrome
Answer: B) Turner syndrome
Explanation: Turner syndrome is characterized by the absence of one X chromosome in females, leading to various developmental abnormalities.

Which of the following is not a component of the central nervous system (CNS)?
A) Brain
B) Spinal cord
C) Nerves
D) None of the above
Answer: C) Nerves
Explanation: Nerves are part of the peripheral nervous system (PNS), not the central nervous system.

Which of the following is the basic functional unit of the nervous system?
A) Neuron
B) Glial cell
C) Neurotransmitter
D) Synapse
Answer: A) Neuron
Explanation: Neurons are specialized cells that transmit nerve impulses and are the basic units of the nervous system.

Which part of the brain is responsible for controlling vital functions such as breathing and heart rate?
A) Cerebrum
B) Cerebellum
C) Medulla oblongata
D) Hypothalamus
Answer: C) Medulla oblongata
Explanation: The medulla oblongata is located in the brainstem and controls vital autonomic functions.

Which of the following is not a function of the hypothalamus?
A) Regulation of body temperature
B) Control of hunger and thirst
C) Production of hormones
D) Coordination of muscle movements
Answer: D) Coordination of muscle movements
Explanation: The hypothalamus is involved in various functions such as regulation of body temperature, hunger and thirst, and hormone production, but it does not directly coordinate muscle movements.

Which of the following is not a type of muscle tissue?
A) Skeletal muscle
B) Cardiac muscle
C) Smooth muscle
D) Dense connective tissue
Answer: D) Dense connective tissue
Explanation: Dense connective tissue is a type of connective tissue, not muscle tissue.

The process by which light is converted into electrochemical signals in the retina is called:
A) Accommodation
B) Refraction
C) Phototransduction
D) Olfaction
Answer: C) Phototransduction
Explanation: Phototransduction is the process by which light is converted into electrical signals by photoreceptor cells in the retina.

Which of the following is not a type of taste detected by taste buds?
A) Sweet
B) Sour
C) Spicy
D) Umami
Answer: C) Spicy
Explanation: Taste buds detect five primary tastes: sweet, sour, salty, bitter, and umami (savory).

Which of the following is the primary function of the respiratory system?
A) Transport of oxygen
B) Regulation of body temperature
C) Production of hormones
D) Regulation of blood pH
Answer: A) Transport of oxygen
Explanation: The respiratory system is responsible for the exchange of gases, primarily oxygen and carbon dioxide, between the body and the environment.

What is the main function of the alveoli in the lungs?
A) Production of mucus
B) Exchange of gases
C) Filtering air particles
D) Regulation of airflow
Answer: B) Exchange of gases
Explanation: The alveoli are tiny air sacs in the lungs where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs between the air and the bloodstream.

Which of the following is not a component of the circulatory system?
A) Heart
B) Blood vessels
C) Lymph nodes
D) Lungs
Answer: D) Lungs
Explanation: The circulatory system consists of the heart, blood vessels, and blood, but not the lungs, which are part of the respiratory system.

Which type of blood vessel carries blood away from the heart?
A) Artery
B) Vein
C) Capillary
D) Venules
Answer: A) Artery
Explanation: Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to the rest of the body.

Which of the following is the largest artery in the human body?
A) Aorta
B) Pulmonary artery
C) Carotid artery
D) Coronary artery
Answer: A) Aorta
Explanation: The aorta is the largest artery in the human body and carries oxygen-rich blood from the heart to the rest of the body.

Which of the following blood vessels carries deoxygenated blood?
A) Pulmonary artery
B) Pulmonary vein
C) Aorta
D) Inferior vena cava
Answer: A) Pulmonary artery
Explanation: The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs for oxygenation.

Which of the following components of blood is responsible for clotting?
A) Red blood cells
B) White blood cells
C) Platelets
D) Plasma
Answer: C) Platelets
Explanation: Platelets are cell fragments in the blood that play a crucial role in blood clotting and wound healing.

Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system?
A) Absorption of nutrients
B) Regulation of body temperature
C) Breakdown of food
D) Elimination of waste
Answer: B) Regulation of body temperature
Explanation: The digestive system is primarily responsible for the breakdown of food into nutrients, absorption of nutrients, and elimination of waste, but not for regulating body temperature.

Which organ produces bile to aid in digestion?
A) Liver
B) Pancreas
C) Gallbladder
D) Stomach
Answer: A) Liver
Explanation: The liver produces bile, which is stored and concentrated in the gallbladder and released into the small intestine to aid in digestion.

The enzyme responsible for breaking down proteins into amino acids is:
A) Amylase
B) Lipase
C) Protease
D) Maltase
Answer: C) Protease
Explanation: Protease enzymes break down proteins into smaller peptides and amino acids during the process of digestion.

Which of the following is not a part of the urinary system?
A) Kidney
B) Ureter
C) Bladder
D) Pancreas
Answer: D) Pancreas
Explanation: The pancreas is part of the digestive system, not the urinary system.

What is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtering blood and producing urine?
A) Nephron
B) Glomerulus
C) Ureter
D) Urethra
Answer: A) Nephron
Explanation: The nephron is the structural and functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtering blood and producing urine.

Which of the following hormones regulates water balance in the body?
A) Insulin
B) Thyroxine
C) Aldosterone
D) Estrogen
Answer: C) Aldosterone
Explanation: Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that regulates water and electrolyte balance by increasing sodium reabsorption in the kidneys.

Which of the following is a function of the endocrine system?
A) Regulation of body temperature
B) Regulation of metabolism
C) Filtration of blood
D) Production of urine
Answer: B) Regulation of metabolism
Explanation: The endocrine system consists of glands that secrete hormones to regulate various physiological functions, including metabolism.

Which gland is often referred to as the “master gland” because it regulates the functions of other endocrine glands?
A) Thyroid gland
B) Pituitary gland
C) Adrenal gland
D) Pancreas
Answer: B) Pituitary gland
Explanation: The pituitary gland, located at the base of the brain, secretes hormones that regulate the functions of other endocrine glands.

Which hormone is responsible for regulating blood glucose levels?
A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) Thyroxine
D) Estrogen
Answer: A) Insulin
Explanation: Insulin is produced by the pancreas and helps regulate blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells.

Which hormone is responsible for promoting calcium absorption in the intestines and calcium reabsorption in the kidneys?
A) Insulin
B) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
C) Thyroxine
D) Cortisol
Answer: B) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Explanation: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is produced by the parathyroid glands and regulates calcium levels in the blood by promoting calcium absorption in the intestines and reabsorption in the kidneys.

Which of the following is not a function of the integumentary system?
A) Protection against pathogens
B) Regulation of body temperature
C) Production of hormones
D) Sensation
Answer: C) Production of hormones
Explanation: The integumentary system primarily functions to protect the body from pathogens, regulate body temperature, provide sensation, and synthesize vitamin D, but it does not produce hormones.

Which layer of the skin contains blood vessels, nerves, and sweat glands?
A) Epidermis
B) Dermis
C) Hypodermis
D) Subcutaneous tissue
Answer: B) Dermis
Explanation: The dermis is the middle layer of the skin, containing blood vessels, nerves, sweat glands, and other structures.

Which pigment is responsible for the color of human skin?
A) Melanin
B) Carotene
C) Hemoglobin
D) Keratin
Answer: A) Melanin
Explanation: Melanin is the pigment responsible for the color of human skin, hair, and eyes.

Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?
A) Support and protection
B) Blood cell production
C) Regulation of body temperature
D) Movement
Answer: C) Regulation of body temperature
Explanation: The skeletal system provides support and protection, facilitates movement, and serves as a site for blood cell production and mineral storage, but it does not directly regulate body temperature.

Which type of joint allows for the widest range of motion?
A) Hinge joint
B) Ball-and-socket joint
C) Pivot joint
D) Gliding joint
Answer: B) Ball-and-socket joint
Explanation: Ball-and-socket joints allow for the widest range of motion in multiple directions, such as the shoulder and hip joints.

Which of the following bones is not part of the axial skeleton?
A) Skull
B) Vertebrae
C) Femur
D) Ribs
Answer: C) Femur
Explanation: The femur is part of the appendicular skeleton, whereas the skull, vertebrae, and ribs are part of the axial skeleton.

Which type of muscle tissue is striated and under voluntary control?
A) Skeletal muscle
B) Cardiac muscle
C) Smooth muscle
D) Involuntary muscle
Answer: A) Skeletal muscle
Explanation: Skeletal muscle tissue is striated (striped) and under voluntary control, allowing conscious movement of the body.

Which of the following hormones stimulates the contraction of smooth muscle in the uterus during childbirth?
A) Oxytocin
B) Estrogen
C) Testosterone
D) Prolactin
Answer: A) Oxytocin
Explanation: Oxytocin is a hormone released by the pituitary gland that stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth and milk ejection during breastfeeding.

Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system?
A) Absorption of fats
B) Filtration of blood
C) Production of white blood cells
D) Defense against pathogens
Answer: B) Filtration of blood
Explanation: The lymphatic system functions to absorb fats from the digestive system, produce and transport white blood cells, and defend against pathogens, but it does not directly filter blood.

Which organ is considered the primary lymphoid organ, responsible for T-cell maturation?
A) Thymus
B) Spleen
C) Lymph nodes
D) Bone marrow
Answer: A) Thymus
Explanation: The thymus is the primary lymphoid organ where T-cells mature and differentiate.

Which of the following is not a type of white blood cell?
A) Neutrophil
B) Erythrocyte
C) Lymphocyte
D) Monocyte
Answer: B) Erythrocyte
Explanation: Erythrocytes, or red blood cells, are not white blood cells; they are responsible for carrying oxygen in the blood.

Which of the following is a function of the immune system?
A) Regulation of blood pressure
B) Regulation of body temperature
C) Production of hormones
D) Defense against pathogens
Answer: D) Defense against pathogens
Explanation: The immune system is responsible for defending the body against pathogens, such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi.

Which type of immunity is acquired through the transfer of antibodies from another individual?
A) Active immunity
B) Passive immunity
C) Innate immunity
D) Adaptive immunity
Answer: B) Passive immunity
Explanation: Passive immunity is acquired through the transfer of antibodies from another individual, such as through breastfeeding or injection of antibodies.

Which of the following is not a function of the reproductive system?
A) Production of gametes
B) Regulation of hormone levels
C) Regulation of blood sugar levels
D) Development of secondary sexual characteristics
Answer: C) Regulation of blood sugar levels
Explanation: The reproductive system is primarily responsible for the production of gametes (sperm and egg cells), regulation of hormone levels related to reproduction, and development of secondary sexual characteristics.

Which female reproductive organ produces estrogen and progesterone?
A) Ovary
B) Uterus
C) Fallopian tube
D) Vagina
Answer: A) Ovary
Explanation: The ovaries are the primary female reproductive organs responsible for producing estrogen and progesterone.

Which of the following is not a part of the female external genitalia?
A) Clitoris
B) Labia majora
C) Uterus
D) Vaginal opening
Answer: C) Uterus
Explanation: The uterus is an internal reproductive organ, while the clitoris, labia majora, and vaginal opening are part of the external genitalia.

Which male reproductive organ produces sperm and testosterone?
A) Testes
B) Epididymis
C) Prostate gland
D) Seminal vesicles
Answer: A) Testes
Explanation: The testes are the primary male reproductive organs responsible for producing sperm and testosterone.

Which of the following is not a part of the male external genitalia?
A) Penis
B) Scrotum
C) Testes
D) Urethra
Answer: C) Testes
Explanation: The testes are internal reproductive organs, while the penis, scrotum, and urethra are part of the male external genitalia.

Which of the following is not a stage of the menstrual cycle?
A) Menstruation
B) Ovulation
C) Fertilization
D) Luteal phase
Answer: C) Fertilization
Explanation: Fertilization is the process of the sperm and egg combining to form a zygote, not a stage of the menstrual cycle.

Which hormone is responsible for initiating ovulation in females?
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Answer: D) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Explanation: Luteinizing hormone (LH) is responsible for triggering ovulation in females.

Which of the following is not a function of the placenta during pregnancy?
A) Exchange of nutrients and waste products between mother and fetus
B) Production of hormones to maintain pregnancy
C) Protection of the fetus from pathogens
D) Regulation of fetal heartbeat
Answer: D) Regulation of fetal heartbeat
Explanation: The placenta serves as a site for exchange of nutrients and waste products, production of hormones to maintain pregnancy, and protection of the fetus from pathogens, but it does not directly regulate fetal heartbeat.

Which stage of embryonic development follows the blastula stage?
A) Zygote
B) Gastrula
C) Morula
D) Blastocyst
Answer: B) Gastrula
Explanation: The gastrula stage follows the blastula stage during embryonic development and involves the formation of three germ layers: ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm.

Which of the following is not a germ layer formed during gastrulation?
A) Ectoderm
B) Mesoderm
C) Endoderm
D) Exoderm
Answer: D) Exoderm
Explanation: Exoderm is not a germ layer formed during gastrulation; the correct layers are ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm.

Which of the following is a developmental process by which cells become specialized for specific functions?
A) Cleavage
B) Gastrulation
C) Differentiation
D) Fertilization
Answer: C) Differentiation
Explanation: Differentiation is the process by which cells become specialized for specific functions during embryonic development.

What is the correct order of stages in human development from fertilization to birth?
A) Zygote, Blastula, Gastrula, Embryo, Fetus
B) Zygote, Morula, Blastula, Gastrula, Fetus
C) Zygote, Blastocyst, Gastrula, Embryo, Fetus
D) Zygote, Morula, Blastocyst, Embryo, Fetus
Answer: D) Zygote, Morula, Blastocyst, Embryo, Fetus
Explanation: The correct sequence of stages in human development from fertilization to birth is zygote, morula, blastocyst, embryo, and fetus.

Which of the following is not a type of asexual reproduction?
A) Binary fission
B) Budding
C) Fragmentation
D) Fertilization
Answer: D) Fertilization
Explanation: Fertilization is a type of sexual reproduction, while binary fission, budding, and fragmentation are types of asexual reproduction.

Which type of asexual reproduction involves the detachment of body parts that grow into new individuals?
A) Binary fission
B) Budding
C) Fragmentation
D) Parthenogenesis
Answer: C) Fragmentation
Explanation: Fragmentation is a type of asexual reproduction where an organism breaks into fragments, and each fragment can grow into a new individual.

Which of the following organisms reproduces exclusively through parthenogenesis?
A) Starfish
B) Earthworm
C) Komodo dragon
D) Aphid
Answer: D) Aphid
Explanation: Aphids are insects that can reproduce through parthenogenesis, where females produce offspring without fertilization by males.

Which type of sexual reproduction involves the fusion of gametes to form a zygote?
A) Fertilization
B) Cleavage
C) Meiosis
D) Mitosis
Answer: A) Fertilization
Explanation: Fertilization is the process by which sperm and egg cells fuse to form a zygote, which develops into a new individual.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of sexual reproduction compared to asexual reproduction?
A) Genetic diversity
B) Rapid population growth
C) Energy expenditure
D) Adaptability to changing environments
Answer: C) Energy expenditure
Explanation: Sexual reproduction requires more energy and resources compared to asexual reproduction due to the production of gametes and mating behaviors.

Which of the following is a type of symbiotic relationship where one organism benefits while the other is harmed?
A) Mutualism
B) Commensalism
C) Parasitism
D) Competition
Answer: C) Parasitism
Explanation: Parasitism is a symbiotic relationship where one organism (the parasite) benefits at the expense of the other organism (the host).

Which of the following is an example of mutualism?
A) Tick feeding on the blood of a dog
B) Bee pollinating flowers while obtaining nectar
C) Barnacles attaching to a whale’s skin
D) Lion hunting and killing a zebra for food
Answer: B) Bee pollinating flowers while obtaining nectar
Explanation: Mutualism is a symbiotic relationship where both organisms benefit, such as bees pollinating flowers while obtaining nectar for food.

Which of the following is an example of commensalism?
A) Tick feeding on the blood of a dog
B) Bee pollinating flowers while obtaining nectar
C) Barnacles attaching to a whale’s skin
D) Clownfish living among the tentacles of sea anemones
Answer: C) Barnacles attaching to a whale’s skin
Explanation: Commensalism is a symbiotic relationship where one organism benefits while the other is neither helped nor harmed, such as barnacles attaching to a whale’s skin to hitch a ride.

Which of the following is an example of competition?
A) Tick feeding on the blood of a dog
B) Bee pollinating flowers while obtaining nectar
C) Barnacles attaching to a whale’s skin
D) Lions and hyenas competing for prey
Answer: D) Lions and hyenas competing for prey
Explanation: Competition occurs when organisms vie for the same resources, such as food, water, or territory, as seen with lions and hyenas competing for prey.

Which of the following is a biotic factor in an ecosystem?
A) Soil
B) Temperature
C) Water
D) Plants
Answer: D) Plants
Explanation: Biotic factors are living components of an ecosystem, such as plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms.

Which of the following is an example of primary succession?
A) Mosses and lichens colonizing bare rock
B) Weeds growing in a disturbed area after a forest fire
C) Grasses invading an abandoned agricultural field
D) Shrubs and trees colonizing a sand dune
Answer: A) Mosses and lichens colonizing bare rock
Explanation: Primary succession occurs in areas where no soil exists, such as bare rock or newly formed volcanic islands, and involves the gradual establishment of plant communities starting with pioneer species like mosses and lichens.

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